Talk:Literature/Related Articles: Difference between revisions
Jump to navigation
Jump to search
imported>Hayford Peirce (→English literature: new section) |
imported>Roger A. Lohmann (→English literature: Add comment) |
||
| Line 2: | Line 2: | ||
Is it ONLY confined to the British isles? I myself, if I use the phrase, tend to include (perhaps incorrectly) anything written by an American in the English language. I know that [[Henry James]] is a tricky case, since, although American, one thinks of him as being a British writer, but what about [[Mark Twain]]? I remember being forced to take an English 101 course at Harvard where the lecturer was a semi-celebrated [[Richard Poirier]], and some of his lectures involved Twain and other Americans. (He insisted, by the way, that for a ''nom de plume'', the FULL name HAD to used, ie, you always referred to Mark Twain and NEVER to Twain. He used to drive me crazy.) [[User:Hayford Peirce|Hayford Peirce]] ([[User talk:Hayford Peirce|talk]]) 20:41, 12 September 2020 (UTC) | Is it ONLY confined to the British isles? I myself, if I use the phrase, tend to include (perhaps incorrectly) anything written by an American in the English language. I know that [[Henry James]] is a tricky case, since, although American, one thinks of him as being a British writer, but what about [[Mark Twain]]? I remember being forced to take an English 101 course at Harvard where the lecturer was a semi-celebrated [[Richard Poirier]], and some of his lectures involved Twain and other Americans. (He insisted, by the way, that for a ''nom de plume'', the FULL name HAD to used, ie, you always referred to Mark Twain and NEVER to Twain. He used to drive me crazy.) [[User:Hayford Peirce|Hayford Peirce]] ([[User talk:Hayford Peirce|talk]]) 20:41, 12 September 2020 (UTC) | ||
:Me too, but your question actually straddles a raft of topics, including American cultural nationalism. As I understand it, in the decades after the Am. Revolution there was a vast and far-reaching debate over this very question, and then a couple of generations of writers from Hawthorne to Whitman made the convincing case (by example and polemic) that American literature was a thing unto itself and different from "Brit Lit" (which I took from a similar pendant who also drove me crazy!) [[User:Roger A. Lohmann|Roger A. Lohmann]] ([[User talk:Roger A. Lohmann|talk]]) 22:16, 12 September 2020 (UTC) | |||
Revision as of 17:16, 12 September 2020
English literature
Is it ONLY confined to the British isles? I myself, if I use the phrase, tend to include (perhaps incorrectly) anything written by an American in the English language. I know that Henry James is a tricky case, since, although American, one thinks of him as being a British writer, but what about Mark Twain? I remember being forced to take an English 101 course at Harvard where the lecturer was a semi-celebrated Richard Poirier, and some of his lectures involved Twain and other Americans. (He insisted, by the way, that for a nom de plume, the FULL name HAD to used, ie, you always referred to Mark Twain and NEVER to Twain. He used to drive me crazy.) Hayford Peirce (talk) 20:41, 12 September 2020 (UTC)
- Me too, but your question actually straddles a raft of topics, including American cultural nationalism. As I understand it, in the decades after the Am. Revolution there was a vast and far-reaching debate over this very question, and then a couple of generations of writers from Hawthorne to Whitman made the convincing case (by example and polemic) that American literature was a thing unto itself and different from "Brit Lit" (which I took from a similar pendant who also drove me crazy!) Roger A. Lohmann (talk) 22:16, 12 September 2020 (UTC)